Re: explicit mode

[Chris Berardi <cberardi32@...>]

On May 10, 2016, at 10:45 AM, Viacheslav Usov <via.usov@gmail.com> wrote:

On Tue, May 10, 2016 at 4:31 PM, Luiz Henrique de Figueiredo <lhf@tecgraf.puc-rio.br> wrote:

> I would guess this must have been discussed, so pointers to prior
> discussions will be appreciated.

See http://lua-users.org/lists/lua-l/2011-09/msg00684.html .

Thank you. However, I have not found in that and referenced threads any explanation at all why such a mode cannot be part of the language. Have I missed something obvious?

Cheers,

V.

Are you looking for technical reasons or explanations why it may not be in keeping with the general philosophy of the language?